Gregory Clark argues that Europe, up to roughly 1800, through the early modern as well as medieval eras, was subject to Malthusian constraints. Others disagree with the applicability of the Malthusian model for all or part of that period. Grantham, for example, maintains that the key constraint on prosperity during European feudalism was not Malthusian, but the prevalence of market incentives. 

Contrast the views and evidence supplied by Grantham, as opposed to Clark. Which is more persuasive? Is the evidence sufficient to make either point of view persuasive?

George Grantham, "The Manse, The Manor and the Market: New Perspectives on the Medieval Agricultural Revolution"